Jul 1989 - Q & A

Col 1:13. (a) Does this kingdom equate with the Church which is His Body? (b) If so, in what way would we apply the principles usually viewed by us in the kingdom of God, i.e. a King, His law and a people subject to both - with consequent conditional aspect?

(a) Those in the kingdom of Colossians 1:13 are those whom God Himself has placed there, having completed the prerequisite sanctifying work (v.12). The context is eternal salvation from sin's penalty (v.14). Significantly, the transfer from the power of darkness to the light of God is used elsewhere of the redemptive work of God in salvation (Acts 26:18) - a once for all event not subject to change because of future actions by its beneficiaries. Likewise, and simultaneously, believers are placed by God as members in the Church which is Christ's Body (1 Cor. 12:13,18). Those in the kingdom of Colossians 1:13 may therefore be viewed as members of the Church, the Body; at least this "kingdom" is co-extensive with that Church.

(b)As all authority has been vested in the Son (Mat. 26:18) and the Father has subjected all things to the Son (Heb. 2:8), it is not surprising that we meet expressions in the Word of God where the Son, on behalf of the Father, is shown as reigning. For instance, He reigns over His entire physical and spiritual creation (1 Cor. 15:24-28); over all whom, since Pentecost, God has redeemed through Christ (in this capacity, the Son is described as Head (Eph. 1:22) reflecting His authority); or in the even narrower but still collective sphere as Ruler over faithful subjects who voluntarily submit themselves to the conditions of His reign (note the similarity of 1 Corinthians 6:9 and Ephesians 5:5 - the kingdom of Christ and the kingdom of God are both conditional in nature and closed to the same offenders, suggesting the terms there are synonymous).

In the verse in question "kingdom" describes the reign or authority of Christ over those the Father has placed under His jurisdiction; the word is used in a different context but with the same force in 1 Corinthians 15:24. It is not necessary, however, to demonstrate continuing obedience of those under such reign to a law, as their position is as unconditional and irrevocable as the salvation they have received from the Father. From this we perceive that the "kingdom of the Son" is not synonymous with the "kingdom of Christ" in Ephesians 5:5; nor for that matter is either of these two necessarily synonymous with the "kingdom of... Christ" in Revelation 11:15. Rather, in Colossians 1:13 the term kingdom is used to describe the inviolable protection enjoyed by those who have been placed under the authority of Christ. This is emphasized in the contrast between their former enslavement under the delegated power of the evil one and their preservation under the ultimate power of Christ, implicit in kingship. This accords with the Lord's own words in Matthew 16:18 and John 10:28 and with the description of Him as preserver of the Body (Eph. 5:23). In this sense, "kingdom" is clearly an appropriate description, but we do not need to extend its use to assume other meanings the word has in other scriptures.

unknown | Jul 1989
Question And Answer